Posted by MikeW on July 18, 2001 at 15:55:33:
In Reply to: divorce. posted by Kimberly on July 18, 2001 at 12:23:38:
From what I know, a leasehold is considered marital property, regardless of the signatory on the lease (similar to a house, regardless of who's name is on the deed). In the settlement or decision, the status of the apartment will be decided. This isn't really a landlord/tenant issue.
: I am in the middle of a pretty messy divorce. We have been bicoastal for since 1997-during this time he has not been here at all and I have spent equal time between here and LA. We have a rent stabliized apartment in the E. Village. He has not signed the leases for the past five years. Recently he was arrested breaking into my apartment. He claims that it is his apartment since he was the first one who held the lease. He only lived here a 1/2 year when he first rented it and moved back into the building with me February of 1988. The lease has been switched to my name yet he claims to be the lease holder. He owns a house in Los Angeles. Does he have any rights to the apartment? Is there a place that I can go to and talk with someone?
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