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Posted by SS on October 08, 1997 at 17:53:31:

During a dispute w/my landlord about services in the building, he claimed
he was entitled to raise the rent by 15% because my wife had signed the
lease in her name alone before we were married. He reasoned that he was
entitled to a new tenant increase when I moved in, and cited a clause to
that effect in the lease. I believe that any such clause would be illegal
since we are now married and my wife may have any family members as occupants
without their being leaseholders. I'd be interested to know if anyone has
seen this law upheld in court.

Follow Ups:

• Re: Interesting Landlord tactic TenantNet 10/13/97 (0)
• Re: Interesting Landlord tactic gary 10/09/97 (0)

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Comments:
: During a dispute w/my landlord about services in the building, he claimed
: he was entitled to raise the rent by 15% because my wife had signed the
: lease in her name alone before we were married.  He reasoned that he was
: entitled to a new tenant increase when I moved in, and cited a clause to
: that effect in the lease.  I believe that any such clause would be illegal
: since we are now married and my wife may have any family members as occupants
: without their being leaseholders.  I'd be interested to know if anyone has
: seen this law upheld in court.


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