Posted by Jeannette on April 02, 1998 at 17:43:21:
? - I'm not sure exactly what my landlord was doing, but I believe my apartment building is rent-stabilized at the moment. However, he wrote in on the lease and had me initial this clause: "This apartment is not rent-stabilized. It is free-market." How legal is this? I know that he applied for exemption from rent-stabilization status. If he has been refused, how do you suggest I negotiate during a renewal of my lease?
Also, I'm sure it's too late now, but back in the winter, the boiler in our building exploded, leaving the whole building without heat or hot water for over a week. Needless to say, my apartment was uninhabitable for that period of time. Would it have been legal for me to deduct a proportionate amount from my rent? Also, my landlord had a write-in section at the end of the lease stating: "Tenant can not reduce any part of rent for repair bill or damages."
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