Trying to keep this concise.
The apartment was listed online at $2000. No fee. Broker indicated another prospective tenant (who apparently had a better background and financials) wanted in and if I agreed to $2100 then the apartment is mine. I agreed so long as the lease would be a 2 year lease instead.
I recently pulled a rental history report and see that the apartment is rent stabilized. Also that the 1st year I was living it said Owner Occupied. Also the year before I rented, it says Owner Occupied but there was indeed a tenant in there. I believe family friend. For this year, it shows legal rent as $1600 and the name is correct on my first name and clearly incorrect on my last name.
Also my lease never had a rent stabilized rider either. I actually never received a signed back copy of the lease from the LL. Broker assured me that the place is indeed mine. I had to find out on my own that it was RS. The lease indicates that the landlord is only responsible for cold water and not heat for a 421a building. It is listed in a separate rider that I agree to that. I read somewhere that 421a buildings must supply heat to an apartment rather than each individual apartment controls their thermostat and pay for it.
Do I have any right to bring this up? What are the positives/negatives? Ideally would just like to take a new 2 year lease with a preferential rent of $1100 to make up for the $12000 in overcharges for 2 years.