Hi - my sister just signed a lease. Under a sections "Tenants defaults and landlords remedies", it states "if tenant fails to correct default within 5 days, landlord may cancel the lease by giving the tenant a written 3 day notice stating the date the term will end."
One definition of a default is 'improper conduct'. Is that type of ambiguity normal?
It says also that if he kicks her out for aforementioned defaults, she is responsible for the rent for the Unexpired term as well as costs incurred by him to find a new tenant. (specifies cost of repairs, decorations, brokers fees, attorneys fees, advertising and preparation for renting as costs).
Any input is greatly appreciated!
Thanks!