For a while i was considering subletting my apt. During that time a prospective tenant filled out an application. Right after that, i changed my mind and decided to not go ahead and sublet the apt to him. I had not signed the application, nor had the actual landlord seen, signed, or otherwise approved the sublet application.
Now, the prospective tenant is stating that the application he submitted is a binding contract and that I must make the apt available to him.
This doesn't make any sense to me. Based on this concept anyone could complete an application and then lay claim to an apt, regardless of what the lessee or the landlord actually wished.
Who is in the right/wrong here, and what rules are in place concerning this.
Thanks very much for your help!