I did a bit of research on ‘laches’ by reading the two links below.
I am left with the understanding that laches does not apply unless some kind of undue hardship is done to the plaintiff.
As an example, if the tenant owes $6000.00 of rental for occupancy of an apartment for a six-month period, which occupancy occurred two years ago then, such a tenant shall not be excluded from owing that rent if the tenant has $750,000.00 in his bank account and no other debts.
Is this correct as a basic understanding of the law?
(Statutes of Limitation not being considered here.)
http://tenant.net/phpBB2/viewtopic.php?t=7973
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laches_(equity)